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Post by Vlad on Sept 22, 2012 3:04:18 GMT 2
We Orthodox hold reasonable claim to the title, One, Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. Even our name, Orthodox, signifies our holding to the original Christian faith handed down to the Apostles. However, with this in mind, I'd like to ask a question:
Knowing that certain Bishops in the NT (St. Peter is one that comes to mind) had wives, and that the practice of selecting Bishops exclusively from monastic ranks was only a practice started centuries after Christ's death, would it be fair to say that the rule about celibate Bishops is not fully Orthodox?
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Post by OrthodoxBrit on Sept 22, 2012 10:17:08 GMT 2
Hi Vlad, we need to remember that when we talk of the 'Orthodoxy' of a thing we talk of our faith but when we speak of the Orthodox Church we are discussing an entity which works within the world with policies and sometimes requiring changes in these to suit situations and problems which may arise. Orthodoxy and Church Practice are vastly different concepts and in cases such as these the theology has nothing to do with the practical side. The Church's situation has changed since the first century due to the rise in monasticism and growth of the Christian community. These required a change in church practice and practical changes in policy to avoid such things as corruption in the clergy such as Bishops ordaining their sons or hereditary bishoprics (since the Jewish custom had temple families.) so there was a required change of practice to keep the church alive and healthy, not a change of belief since the church has never condemned married Bishops, as it would contradict apostolic teaching, but simply didn't elect them, so married bishops as a breed just died out. At the quinsext council a canon said that Bishops could not live with their wives (though told them not to cast the wives away). Quite simply, they have every right to wish to be a bishop if married but Church practice means that they would not be elected as a man who is married and is expected to live away from his life and juggle the demands of being a bishop and husband would not be ideal for running a diocese. You are called to marry a diocese or a wife, so in a large community it becomes a clash of priorities. (Also why Coptic Popes are only Diocesian bishops in extreme circumstances, since they can't have a diocese and the Papal seat which is a diocese in itself.) From my view, as with married bishops, It is not a change in Dogma but a change in church practice and policy so does not effect it's orthodoxy as the faith remains the same. Orthodoxy is about belief and faith of the church, not the Church's policies on running itself (thus the name ortho-doxa) I think the Antiochian Priest Fr Aaron (from monachos) answers better than I ever could. He says: There is a fundamental flaw in the notion that the Church today should be an exact replica of the Church of the 1st Century. The Church during the 1st century was small and persecuted. By and large, that is not the case today, nor was it like that in, for example, the 6th century. As Orthodox Christians, therefore, we are not concerned that bishops were married in the 1st century but they are not today, this issue is a practical, not theological, issue. No one has argued theologically against married bishops, nor will you find any such argument in the Orthodox tradition. Instead, there are merely practical reasons. I hope this helps. God Bless.
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Post by admin on Sept 22, 2012 10:54:38 GMT 2
I know that the Bishops' celibate was introduced to avoid nepotisms in the Church (some Bishops were ordaining relatives in certain places).
And, as Daniel said, Orthodoxy is not affected, since this is not a doctrine issue.
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Post by OrthodoxBrit on Sept 22, 2012 11:08:01 GMT 2
As much as he was a great saint, St Cyril comes to mind. Ordained by his uncle and also succeeded him as Patriarch of Alexandria.
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